Last post by Anakunda -
Hiyas, coz I'm quite disappointed that my audio gear otherwise can play from hires sources, but I can't make any difference of it, I'd like to have some idea where lays the perceptible threshold, and also where approximately is the true hi-res entry price level. I realize that it may be the ears or bad mastering that prevents to hear any difference, but given that ears and record are sufficient, I'd like to have a thought how should the most minimal setup look like, which not only reads high resolution, but also is able to "write" it, ie. it can in real render the added resolution. Can for example anybody post a sample of concrete setup where he's able to ABX 24bit PCM or DSD audio from standard resolution of the same source? (by standard I mean something like CD standard - 44100Hz/16b).

Last post by magicgoose -
If you do it correctly and if we ignore loss of precision (fixed size floating point is still fixed size floating point), then yes, it would do the same.

Last post by ziemek.z -
So if I FFT'd both channels of the signal, averaged coefficients and IFFT'd them, would it do the same as simply averaging both signals?

Last post by ziemek.z -
OK... but how does it happen? FFT of zero: FREQ 0, AMPL 0, PHASE 0. Average of FFTs: FREQ freq, AMPL ampl, PHASE (phase1 + phase2) / 2 ...is that right?

The comment about a true FFT being a linear transform is true -- add an FFT (each) of two signals and the result will be the same as an FFT of the sum of the actual time domain originals.

The comment about a true FFT being a linear transform is true -- add an FFT (each) of two signals and the result will be the same as an FFT of the sum of the actual time domain originals.

WHAAAAAT? Let's assume we have a signal and an inverse of it. If we FFT both, we get same freqs and amps, but another phases (which doesn't matter while listening). However if we sum anticorrelated signals, we get NOTHING. LITERALLY NOTHING. FFT OF NOTHING IS NOTHING. How can be average of FFTs of something be equal to FFT of nothing?

Very easy. If you do it by the definition, that is, not ignoring phase information. Similar to how an average of 2 numbers may be zero.

The comment about a true FFT being a linear transform is true -- add an FFT (each) of two signals and the result will be the same as an FFT of the sum of the actual time domain originals.

WHAAAAAT? Let's assume we have a signal and an inverse of it. If we FFT both, we get same freqs and amps, but another phases (which doesn't matter while listening). However if we sum anticorrelated signals, we get NOTHING. LITERALLY NOTHING. FFT OF NOTHING IS NOTHING. How can be average of FFTs of something be equal to FFT of nothing?